General Discussion

Anyone out there who can explain this statement to poor old uneducated me?

I mean, heck, x = 1 - x means x = 0.5 but x = 1 + x means 0x = 1?

Which means 0 = 1?

Wich means it is false and not an equation.  It is an inequality.

x ≠ 1 + x

But if 0.999... = 1 is an equation, then why not?

As in the entire

1 / 3 = 0.333...

1/3 * 3 = 0.999..

1 = 0.999...

Which also means

1 - 0.000..1 = 1

0.000...1 = 0

I used 2 = 1 rather than your 1 = 0 to prove your x = 1 + x theory:

a = b

a^2 = ab

a^2 + a^2 = a^2 + ab

2(a^2) - 2(ab) = a^2 + ab - 2(ab)

2(a^2) - 2(ab) = a^2 - ab

2(a^2 - ab) = 1(a^2 - ab)

2 = 1

The fallacy lies in the bold section. You are dividing both sides by a^2 - ab. But we've already established a = b, so a^2 - ab = 0, which is a no-no with division.

However, you could also look at x = infinity. Infinity = Infinity + 1.

Originally posted by serjndestroy

1 - 0.000..1 = 1

0.000...1 = 0

1 - 0 = 0.999.9 => 1 = 1 = 0

0 or nil has no value. It is only used as a expression for or against a value. Example: 10² = 100 the 0s are not representative to a actual value but are used to express 10². This applies as well to 10 itself. Base numerical values are 1-9 with 0 either adding or subtracting (expression)from the base numerals.  Example  .01 is against the base numeric value as 10 is for the numeral. We see the against or for as - or + while 0 can be neither /or due to it being a expression.

As to .999 9 is the common base of all numeric values. Any character higher than 9 is still a sequence base 9 numeral. A small example is 15.  1+5 is 6 15-6 is 9. Thus the value is true. This is exceptionally helpful when doing division or multiplication. As you can be using very large numbers.

Hope that helps a bit .

Replacing 0 = 1 with 1 = 2 kinda defies the point, the a = b argument is solved, it relies more deeply on the 0 point here

I also played around with the  Infinity = Infinity + 1 train of thought.. Infinity - 1 = Infinity -1 but Infintity + 1 =  Infinity

Which could mean that 1 = 0.

What part of 0 meaning a "expression" did you not understand?

Originally posted by serjndestroy

Replacing 0 = 1 with 1 = 2 kinda defies the point, the a = b argument is solved, it relies more deeply on the 0 point here

I also played around with the  Infinity = Infinity + 1 train of thought.. Infinity - 1 = Infinity -1 but Infintity + 1 =  Infinity

Which could mean that 1 = 0.

But no, just because infinity + 1 = infinity doesn't mean 1 = 0. You can't subtract infinity from both sides, you can't divide it, etc.

After doing some google work about your 1 = 0 situation, I found this: www-math.mit.edu/~tchow/mathstuff/proof.pdf

I'm positive that there's a fallacy somewhere, but it's been AGES since my last calculus class, and I couldn't even begin to remember the rules for integrals and stuff.